Subject: Re: DNSEXT WGLC: IPv6 Name Auto Registration

From: Ted Lemon <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 6 Feb 2003 17:55:31 -0600

>> 5. Client sends a DNS update to the primary server for the reverse 
>> zone
>> that owns its name, again using SIG(0) with the signature from its 
>> FQDN.
>
> if it does not know who holds the reverse zone, and, in fact, is not
> preconfigured, how the heck does it send a _validly signed_ sig(0)
> update to the reverse server if and when it finds it?

Sorry, misuse of terminology.   It sends an update to the reverse 
server signed in the private half of the SIG key from its forward FQDN. 
   The reverse server has to know to do step 6 to validate the update.

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From: Randy Bush <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 06 Feb 2003 19:03:44 -0500

> The reverse server has to know to do step 6 to validate the update.

because my laptop has a relationship to the server for psg.com, and
can put something kinky into the forward name should not mean that
the owner of the reverse zone should trust the data in the forward
zone or that the laptop asserts.  is the attack not pretty obvious?

randy